Rapture: Fiction or Fact?

1- Rapture: FICTION OR FACT?

when and how? Rapture on feast of Trumpets or Atonement?

2- About the connection of Pesach, Unleavened Bread and First Fruits

At this moment this is how I understand scripture without any potential declaration of someone else and not taking account of what other people say nor being addicted to any so called evidence on the internet giving by so many scholars who probably didn't read bible good enough nor having the correct insight.

My current opinion is: to be take away refers to take away the evil ones, and those who are left behind are the elect and righteous, just like in Noah's days: When the flood came it took them all away, but Noah and his people were left behind as being God's chosen people.

Let us make a summary of what some people think about this topic:

We know God sealed seven divine feast Sabbaths in a year: Pesach, Week of Unleavened bread, First Fruits, Pentecost, Trumpets, Atonement and Tabernacles: From these seven God said three are most important: Pesach, Pentecost and Tabernacles. Exodus 23:14 / and Deuteronomy 16:16:
"Three times in a year all your males shall appear before the LORD your God in the place which He chooses, at the Feast of Unleavened Bread and at the Feast of Weeks and at the Feast of Booths, and they shall not appear before the LORD empty-handed.

Do you see some similarities with all harvests in a year? I did and this is what i concluded:

Pesach/Passover is the feast of the Lamb, the First Fruit; read carefully the word Fruit, it's singular referring to Yeshua who gave His blood for complete grace, which means to be redeemed without judgment. But when we read Rev 14:4-5:

"These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are virgins. These are they which follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth. These were redeemed from among men, being the first fruits unto God and to the Lamb. 5 And in their mouth was found no guile: for they are without fault before the throne of God.""

Here it is written 'first FruitS', plural, now compare with this chapter: 1Corinth 15:

"The Order of Resurrection:

20 But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the first fruits of them that slept. 21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. 23 But every man in his own order: Christ the first fruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. 25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. 26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. 27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith, all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.":

Here we read: Christ become the first fruitS of them that slept! Who slept? All those since Adam until the Cross: aren't they the 144 000?! Of course they are: Rev 14:3 says: “and no man could learn that song but the hundred and forty and four thousand, which were redeemed from the earth.” ‘Were redeemed’ in KJV, ‘had been redeemed’ in other translations, and written in past tense and already occurred!

Then we read: "Christ the first fruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. 24 Then cometh the end,..." Christ the first fruits: plural?! Which means He resurrected after the Cross but not alone, but with Him the 144 000 who are called the First Fruits too, and 'were redeemed' out of Hades and shall resurrect at His second coming as John wrote for he only mentions their number and their heavenly presence as being the first fruits! This is the first resurrection connected to the feast of Pesach.

Further we read "afterward they that are Christ's at his coming", referring to his next saints who shall be redeemed "at His coming", we can assume this regards the whole period from the beginning unto the end without further explanations, but according the three important harvest festivals we could picture that Pesach was the first assimilated with the Barley harvest and barley is known as a strong fruit means this rapture consisted a strong group of saints.

Pentecost the second salvation is assimilated with the wheat harvest which, symbolic, is a big harvest in summer season. Tabernacles the third and final salvation assimilated with the Grape harvest and mostly a minor harvest regarding other fruits cause this is the fall harvest and a late harvest time where one can harvest the last fruits: this refers to the remnant of the chosen people (children of light) or those who were left behind after +2000 yrs of tribulations and God's final wrath.

What many claim today:

Regarding the Rev 12 sign of the virgin given birth to a manchild, could refer to a rapture as many claim, or better, almost sure that this refers to a rapture. Is this true? No, of course not!

According my findings Revelation 12 has nothing to do with some rapture of the elect, but retells the birth story, physical as spiritual as well. Nothing physical shall happen on that same day. Why do i think this? Because salvation and Second coming shall occur at the Last Trump of God, which is not referring to the last of the seven Trumpets. A Trump is the sound, a Trumpet the device the angels use to trump the seven trumpets. But God's last trump refers to salvation and this event is to come after the seven trumpets blown by the seven angels. So this last trump of God calling for salvation cannot occur during the feast of Trumpets when the Rev 12 sign appears.

King James Bible 1 Cor 15:52:

"In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed."

Compare with: Isaiah 27:13:

King James Bible

"And it shall come to pass in that day, that the great trumpet shall be blown, and they shall come which were ready to perish in the land of Assyria, and the outcasts in the land of Egypt, and shall worship the LORD in the holy mount at Jerusalem."

Meaning of trumpet: shophar, horn, trumpet: sound of a horn.

Who's Isaiah talking about? : about all previous saints before Christ's first coming, those who were redeemed out of Hades and shall resurrect at His second coming.

Regarding first fruits, Romans 8:23 tells us:

"23 Not only so, but we ourselves, who have the first fruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for our adoption as sons, the redemption of our bodies."

About the quote 'meet in the air' in bible from which the word rapture rooted:

Now we have to be very honest and wise: if we have access to 1000 different texts and we then have to compose a book on a certain topic, but the texts all talk about that topic, why then only four of the same gospel and a few of Paul's letters and that's it to finally call the New testament, while THE book begins with the Jewish To'rah and further on only a not entirely chronological summary of Israel's history and revelations of the prophets, while most of these non biblical texts only clarify just a few of these chosen biblical texts in particular regarding the New Testament? Who were those first church fathers to decide what is or what is not allowed to be read or to know, or worse, to justify by their own opinion what's divine or not? Did God Himself composed the bible? No, in this case we have to accept or at least regard all existing texts and then it's up to us, every one for his own, to decide what's true or not, because when you start to compare more texts with another, then you'll find similarities, references, links and the truth while bible only reveals a tiny part of it or rather even less than we actually are supposed to know!

About the rapture topic and false teaching:
Paul, who had his own vision, said that 'we, who are alive and remain will meet the Lord in the air'? Why would he have said 'we'? When we read his scripture, we state that he was talking to his people, not to us or some people in the future. Paul, who never knew Yeshua in person, became a disciple, but fact he went to the gentiles he made his own gospel according his vision. This doesn't mean he was a false teacher but maybe too inpulsive or too enthusiastic with his new life of repentence after being a christian persecutor. He probably had a great faith and believe and started to get new ideas of how the elect would be saved at Yeshua's second coming. Fact also is that Yeshua always quoted ' the end is near', but what does 'near' means to a Divine person who knows about the great difference between heavenly and earthly time. In the gospel of the Pistis Sophia (gospel of knowledge and wisdom) He quoted that one heavenly day is equal to 1000 earthly days. This principle of 'one day for thousand years' is not unknown to us and at the same time a biblical statement. Thus, when Yeshua said 'the end is near' and after 2000 earthly years He hasn't yet returned, then we know that He was referring to a heavenly timespan. But apparently Paul didn't understand this and thought He would return during his life, because for what purpose would Paul have referred to the end time elect by quoting 'we'. And he probably wouldn't have thought he would live another 1000 or more years to make part of the second coming isn't it! Here we can see a clear personal view of Paul of being saved, but was never taught by Yeshua himself! That's also why Paul and Peter always argued about this matter in several non biblical texts. But Paul was not a false disciple because Yeshua foretold his appearance in the Epistula Apostolorum.

This means that ignorant people has no right to claim such as a rapture only because the mass christians are talking about this particular event we actually do not find in any other record, besides what we read in Paul's letters. Before claiming something one has to investigate more than only bibletexts for we can assume that bible is not complete.
Was Paul mistaken about the way the elect shall be saved at the end? He surely was right about being saved for and with the Lord, but probably misunderstood some older prophecies which tell us that only those who remain shall be saved and reign with the Lord, but mention not any word of being raptured or taken into the sky or something. And let's take this in mind that Paul also was a mortal being and not perfect as any other faithful person, same as all other prophets previous to
him.

Why should we be careful with text interpretations:
Because, in this case Paul, thought that the second coming would reveal during his life. Yeshua always quoted 'the end is near'! What would you think when someone told you about some event that would occur in the near future? Sure you would think it will happen soon, next week or month or year, maybe a decade but still during your life. This quote about being raptured is a misinterpretation of a misunderstanding of those who desperately wished that Yeshua would return during their life, and so did Paul and some apostles as well, but not any other inspired text or any of Yeshua's quotes are telling us about such event. And Peter as we read in other texts, always disagreed this rapture theory.

----

Conclusion:

These are my findings and understandings and I surely do not listen to many so called scholars who assume that only their vision is the right one. On the internet I saw many explained end time visions: some good, some bad and some totally absurd and confusing. It doesn't mean that when ten people are telling the same that their vision is the most correct. First check for yourself what you understand by listening what the best scholars are telling about this matter and then make your own decision, and i think that's the best way to examine and to understand these prophecies. It's easy to say that this or that is correct because 'this guy' and 'that guy' is saying that, without any bible examinations by yourself first! First check by yourself and then reply!

Take into account that good bible examinations and understandings can take decades with intensive study and i assure you, with lots of headaches, but not by accepting someone’s vision by watching only five minutes to their video's, and then screaming 'yes, that's it because some said the same!' I honest admit I also watch some scholars visions, but can make through a logic conclusion if what they are telling is according scripture or a self made vision and then reflect if they really tell the truth and, in particular, do not misinterpret some of their used passages. Once, I came across one scholar who referred God's last Trump to the coming of President Trump and this person was thoroughly convinced about it, but in this case he brings confusion to many who believe this! How absurd!

I think it's more serious than that, and with more insight we can solve prophecies. If God didn't want us to solve them, then why the prophets had to write them down? So try to solve them, but do this very properly by using everything that is available!

----------

Another misunderstanding is the quote: 'As a thief in the night!' to which event do this refer to?

2 Peter 3:10-13: "But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.

11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness, 12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat? 13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.”

Regarding 'as a thief in the night' it is not referring to rapture but to the coming of the Day of the Lord at the end of tribulations and end of the ages! We actually could estimate a rapture date, some scholars claim, why? Because when Yeshua said He nor the angels but only the Father knows the day or the hour of all things, He was still a mortal human, but when He returned after His resurrection as a divine God, He knew all things he first didn't, and told this to John in His Revelation! Revelation was written after the resurrection. But to solve a prophecy you need references from the Old Testament and God's festivals otherwise you can't! Then we know or at least those who grabbed deeper than the ocean, that there exists hundreds of rejected texts known as apocrypha, scrolls, Essene texts ect... to compare with. I do not doubt Paul or salvation of the left behind elect, but it's not connected with Rev 12:1-2 or the sign which actually is a wonder some claim to be THE sign of times!

However, NO ONE KNOWS the day or the hour, for as bible says: 'we DO not know', not, we will not know!

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

About the connection of Pesach, Unleavened Bread and First Fruits:

First we hear of Pesach in the book of Exodus 12 linked to the exodus of the Israelites out of Egypt.
Ex 12:5: "Your lamb shall be without blemish, a male of the first year: ye shall take it out from the sheep, or from the goats: 6 And ye shall keep it up until the fourteenth day of the same month: and the whole assembly of the congregation of Israel shall kill it in the evening. 7 And they shall take of the blood, and strike it on the two side posts and on the upper door post of the houses, wherein they shall eat it. 8 And they shall eat the flesh in that night, roast with fire, and unleavened bread; and with bitter herbs they shall eat it."

'without blemish, a male of the first year' is the link to Yeshua the Lamb without sin and the first fruit.

Ex 12: "...and ye shall eat it in haste: it is the LORD'S passover. 12 For I will pass through the land of Egypt this night, and will smite all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both man and beast; and against all the gods of Egypt I will execute judgment: I am the LORD. 13 And the blood shall be to you for a token upon the houses where ye are: and when I see the blood, I will pass over you, and the plague shall not be upon you to destroy you, when I smite the land of Egypt.
14 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the LORD throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance for ever."

Here God gave Israel a type of the His future plan regarding the Lamb who will redeem the righteous believers.

The blood cleanses all sin (Egypt as the evil, the bad, the sinful) and by this blood they shall be redeemed. A clear physical type referring to the spiritual redemption for those who believe, and began with the God's type of the First Fruits to make clear that only by a sacrifice of divine blood (without blemish, innocent) of the Lamb, people can be saved without being judged. The Cross is the symbol for redemption without judgment, called the first resurrection. The second resurrection takes place after the Millennium but this resurrection will be done by judgment. That's why Yeshua said to make part of the First Fruits (Pesach, Pentecost and Tabernacles, all physical year harvests and God's spiritual harvests of people)
This day and the following week, inclusive the day of the First Fruits they had to take in rememberance until the real Lamb, His Son, would be slaughtered as being the true Savior of sin.

----------

Pesach/Passover is connected to the feast of Unleavened Bread.

On Pesach Yeshua died on the cross and was buried before sunset, because after sunset the first day of Unleavened Bread began and this is a Shabbat day or feast day. Shabbat means feastday of the Lord, and so is the restday of the week called shabbat referring to saterday, which is the feastday of the week. For example: day of atonement is a holy shabbat, we also have shabbat years every seven years. The Jubilee year is a shabbat year, ect...

Yeshua died in the midst of the week, which is wednesday and Passover, thursday it was the first day of the week of Unleavened Bread and a Shabbat/feast day and were people may not work on this day. The day after, friday was a regular day and the women went with herbs and oil to the tomb of Yeshua. Then the week shabbat follows, (saterday) and again people may not work. But the day after the week shabbat God says it is the day of the First Fruits, a day of redemption and also the resurrection. It's the feastday of the First Harvest of saints were Yeshua represented the First Fruit.

Did Yeshua resurrect on this sunday?

Think not if we know about three days and three nights before He would resurrect. He probably resurrected on shabbat sunset into the new day of First Fruits (sunday) With Him that day also the first saints resurrected and that's why this event is called the First Fruits. This was the first taking away and the first redemption of the saints without judgment, then, if I'm right, two taking away of saints are expected at the end.

John 19 is very clear telling the day of crucifixion mentioning the day after as a special shabbat referring to a feastday not a week shabbat. John is the only one among the desciples who mentions this in his gospel.

John 19:31: "The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation (Pesach), that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day - for that sabbath day was an high day (day after Pesach) - besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away."

John 19:41: "Now in the place where he was crucified there was a garden; and in the garden a new sepulchre, wherein was never man yet laid. 42 There laid they Jesus therefore because of the Jews' preparation day (Pesach); for the sepulchre was nigh at hand."

Yeshua died on a wednesday, on Pesach preparation day. Thursday, the day after was a Shabbat and a holy feastday and not a week shabbat or saterday as many catholics claim by reading the other gospels and then they set friday as the crucifixion day and very unlogic regarding the three days and nights before He would resurrect. But it's only John who mentions 'a special day' after the day of Pesach or preparation day.

----------

Salvation on feast of Trumpets or Atonement?

I believe, which also would be logic, that salvation or better the 2nd coming, will occur on the day of Atonement (Yom Kippur) not on the feast of Trumpets, for also before the day of Atonement the trumpets first blast, which makes Atonement a more possible last day. Isaiah 27:12-13 about atonement with God.

(But my latest findings point to Tabernacle and the Eighth Day: more about this topic on this website )

Yom Teruah (Truach):The Day of Blasting.

Trumpets falls on the first day of Tishri (the seventh month)

Trumpets calls the people to prepare for Yom Kippuror the Day of Atonement.

The ten days from Trumpets to the Day of Atonement are known as "the days of awe" and the people consider very carefully what sins will be held against them when GOD reckons up.

Jewish tradition says that on this day GOD enters the righteous in the book of life and the wicked in the book of death. For those in between , the verdict remains open until Yom Kippur.

Incidentally, Trumpets falls when the zodiac sign is the scales.

Yom Kippur falls on the tenth of Tishri, following the ten Days of Awe that were instituted by the blowing of Trumpets.

The Day of Atonement is the central holy day in the Autumn season of Tabernacles. It is the most solemn day of the year.

It was instituted in Leviticus 16 see also Lev 23 v26-32 and Num 29 v7.

The people had to be prepared for Yom Kippur as it was the day of national cleansing and repentance and is also known to the Jews as the Day of Judgment.

(Each Jubilee year ( release of captives) started on Yom Kippur. )

(see Lev 25 v8-54 & Is 61 v1-2 which Jesus quoted in Luke 4 v16-19) )

----------

Another misunderstanding:

Is Yeshua God the Eternal?
No, He isn't, but yes, He got all authorities of the universe and is equal to the Father of All. Yeshua has all features of the Father with the power of the Holy Spirit who is from, and only comes from the Father.

In John 14:27: "Peace I leave with you, my peace I give unto you: not as the world giveth, give I unto you. Let not your heart be troubled, neither let it be afraid. 28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I. 29 And now I have told you before it come to pass, that, when it is come to pass, ye might believe. 30 Hereafter I will not talk much with you: for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me. 31 But that the world may know that I love the Father; and as the Father gave me commandment, even so I do. Arise, let us go hence."

"FOR MY FATHER IS GREATER THAN I", "that I love the Father, and as the Father gave me commandment, even so I do", and this confirms Yeshua as being the Son of God, His Begotten Son and not God the Eternal and Most High.

God sent His Son so that we can get to God through Him. He is the way, the truth and the life!

John 14: 6: Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through Me."

Note: always keep in mind that God's festivals were meant for the Israelites not the gentiles, at first! Therefore we must also keep in mind that the 3 harvest festivals, in case these should refer to some 'rapture', can or could only rely on the Israelites as being the elect!

Then question: who is Israel? / read more about who Israel represents for God.

Blessed and Shalom,

TNC